Do you think it was OK for the translators of the KJV to have been told via parliament how to translate?

Just seen the exhibition at Cambridge University Library. A small booklet on table shows a bill put to parliament telling Laymen to the Bishops what they can and can't do in translation work - one of which items was that the word 'churches' must be used in preference to 'congregations' - should they have been allowed just to translate what they saw before them? Wonder how many other times they were told what to do!